If my ex husband hasn't salaried child support since March of 2007 does he still obtain to claim her on his taxes?

He hasn't paid since March of 2007, but contained by my divorce decree it say he gets to claim her, but the IRS say whoever pays 51% of her support gets to claim her? Which one do I enjoy to go by? If he hasn't compensated -that isn't fair!


Answers:    Your divorce law is the loophole that allows non-residentaial parents to claim their children without the child certainly living with them, or minus them paying 51% of the support of the child. You follow the divorce decree. It fits below the IRS rules of children of divorced or seperated parents.

Now it should also say within the divorce decree that his support have to be current or paid contained by full or something like that, surrounded by order for him to claim the child. So long as it say something like that, If he does not own his support paid for 2007, consequently he can't claim the child, and he's lost his turn. Most divorces put this clause in within to give the paying parent an incentive to not bring back behind. But you have need of to check your divorce papers one more time. If it say he has to hold his support current, and he doesn't, then you can claim the child instead. If your papers don't read aloud anything about his support individual current in lay down to claim the child (which I would consider odd) then you can't claim the child, it is his year, justifiably.

Check those papers carefully.
yes unless you enjoy gone to court to get stern payment...


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