Legal query roughly authentic estate?
can a judge force one to give subdivision of their property to a neighbor?
Answers: It is possible, but probably unlikely without knowing details. Search for laws in the order of "adverse possession" in your state (or country).
Mowing the lawn is not sufficient qualification for them to claim adverse possession. And usually they would enjoy to actually pay property taxes on the property for the required number of years back they could try to claim it.
I have had two experiences near this type of issue.
1) I purchased a property that the only access was the drive on the neighboring property. About every 5 years I received a communiqu¨¦ from the neighbor' lawyer reminding me that the property belonged to the neighbor. I was told that if he didn't remind me and I used his property continually for a time of time it would belong to me.
2) I purchased a property where the neighbor's house was 2" over the property chain on my property.
No legal action be taken in either bag. We just haven't had any problems beside the arrangements.
If the judge thinks what every the object is the correct legal thing to do than yes. It adjectives depends on the evidence he is presented with and the law. Judges bring in judgment and when that happens that's the agency it is. I suppose you could appeal and hope for a different judgment next time. Usually not but, it depends on your benevolent of what's yours and what's the neighbours. Could be the boundary is marked wrongly for example.
Need to know a lot more than your brief statement
It can ensue not common but the courts threw the court of equity would have that power if motive of action was found beneath your state statute
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Answers: It is possible, but probably unlikely without knowing details. Search for laws in the order of "adverse possession" in your state (or country).
Mowing the lawn is not sufficient qualification for them to claim adverse possession. And usually they would enjoy to actually pay property taxes on the property for the required number of years back they could try to claim it.
I have had two experiences near this type of issue.
1) I purchased a property that the only access was the drive on the neighboring property. About every 5 years I received a communiqu¨¦ from the neighbor' lawyer reminding me that the property belonged to the neighbor. I was told that if he didn't remind me and I used his property continually for a time of time it would belong to me.
2) I purchased a property where the neighbor's house was 2" over the property chain on my property.
No legal action be taken in either bag. We just haven't had any problems beside the arrangements.
If the judge thinks what every the object is the correct legal thing to do than yes. It adjectives depends on the evidence he is presented with and the law. Judges bring in judgment and when that happens that's the agency it is. I suppose you could appeal and hope for a different judgment next time. Usually not but, it depends on your benevolent of what's yours and what's the neighbours. Could be the boundary is marked wrongly for example.
Need to know a lot more than your brief statement
It can ensue not common but the courts threw the court of equity would have that power if motive of action was found beneath your state statute